Free TOEIC Part 5 Practice Questions With Answers

TOEIC Part 5 is 30 questions and the fastest marks in Reading. 30 practice items sorted by what each tests, with the grammar rule behind every answer.

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Sep 4, 2026

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5 min read

Free TOEIC Part 5 Practice Questions With Answers

Key Takeaways

  • TOEIC Part 5 is 30 questions and the fastest marks in Reading.
  • 30 practice items sorted by what each tests, with the grammar rule behind every answer.

TOEIC Part 5 (Incomplete Sentences) is 30 questions at the start of the 75-minute Reading section. Every item is one sentence with one blank and four options, (A) to (D). In the test, Part 5 is numbered questions 101-130. There is no passage to read, which makes Part 5 the cheapest place in Reading to bank marks — and the place where slow readers lose the time they need for Part 7.

Part 5 tests three things and almost nothing else: word form, grammar, and word choice. The 30 items below are sorted that way so you can see which category is costing you marks.

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Key Takeaways

  • Part 5 is 30 questions of the 100 Reading questions; Reading runs 75 minutes for Parts 5, 6 and 7 together, and the Reading section is scored on a scale of 5 to 495.
  • Target 20–25 seconds per item (LUME’s suggested pace, not an ETS rule). Part 7 has 54 questions and needs the time you save here.
  • There is no penalty for guessing, so answer every question.
  • Look at the four options first. If they are forms of the same word, it is a word form item — check the slot, not the meaning.
  • If the options are different tenses or a verb versus a participle, it is a grammar item — find the subject and the time marker.
  • If the options are four unrelated words, it is a vocabulary item — read the whole sentence, because collocation decides it.

How Part 5 fits the Reading section

Part Questions Question numbers
Part 5 Incomplete Sentences 30 101-130
Part 6 Text Completion 16 131-146
Part 7 Reading Comprehension 54 (29 single passages, 25 multiple passages) 147-200
Reading total 100 in 75 minutes 101-200
Source: ETS, TOEIC Listening and Reading Test Examinee Handbook

Category A — Word form (10 items)

Identify the slot: subject, object, verb, adjective before a noun, or adverb modifying a verb.

1. The committee gave its ______ to the revised budget. (A) approve (B) approval (C) approved (D) approvingly — (B). After “its” you need a noun. Why: (A) is a verb, (C) a past form and (D) an adverb; only a noun can follow “its” as the object of “gave”.

2. All applicants must submit their forms ______ before the deadline. (A) electronic (B) electronics (C) electronically (D) electrical — (C). Modifies the verb “submit”. Why: “Submit” is a verb, so the blank needs an adverb. (A) and (D) are adjectives and (B) is a plural noun.

3. The new scheduling system is remarkably ______. (A) efficiency (B) efficiently (C) efficient (D) efficiencies — (C). After a linking verb plus adverb you need an adjective. Why: (A) and (D) are nouns and (B) is an adverb; “is remarkably ___” needs an adjective.

4. Ms. Duarte is the ______ of the northern division. (A) manage (B) manageable (C) manager (D) managing — (C). “the ___ of” needs a person noun. Why: (A) is a verb, (B) an adjective and (D) a participle; only (C) names a person.

5. The report offers a ______ analysis of the market. (A) detail (B) detailed (C) details (D) detailing — (B). Adjective before a noun. Why: (A) and (C) are nouns and (D) is an -ing form; before “analysis” you need an adjective.

6. Sales rose ______ in the final quarter. (A) sharp (B) sharpness (C) sharply (D) sharpen — (C). Why: “Rose” is a verb, so the blank needs an adverb. (A) is an adjective, (B) a noun and (D) a verb.

7. The ______ of the new branch took eight months. (A) construct (B) constructive (C) construction (D) constructively — (C). Why: After “The” and before “of” you need a noun. (A) is a verb, (B) an adjective and (D) an adverb.

8. Please keep the storage room ______ at all times. (A) lock (B) locked (C) locking (D) lockable — (B). “keep + object + past participle”. Why: “Keep + object + past participle” names the state the room should be in. (A), (C) and (D) do not describe that state.

9. Our supplier has been ______ reliable for a decade. (A) consistency (B) consistent (C) consistently (D) consist — (C). Adverb modifying the adjective “reliable”. Why: (A) is a noun, (B) an adjective and (D) a verb; an adverb is needed to modify “reliable”.

10. Attendance at the briefing is ______ for all supervisors. (A) require (B) required (C) requiring (D) requirement — (B). Why: “Is ___ for all supervisors” needs a participle meaning “obligatory”. (A) is a verb, (C) an -ing form and (D) a noun, which does not fit after “is”.

Category B — Grammar (10 items)

11. By the time the auditors arrive, we ______ the inventory. (A) complete (B) completed (C) will have completed (D) are completing — (C). “By the time” plus future reference takes future perfect. Why: (A) present, (B) past and (D) present continuous do not show an action completed before a future point.

12. Neither the supervisor nor the technicians ______ available yesterday. (A) was (B) were (C) is (D) has been — (B). With “neither…nor”, the verb agrees with the nearer subject. Why: The verb agrees with “the technicians” (plural), and “yesterday” needs the past. (C) and (D) are wrong in number or time.

13. The equipment ______ last week has already been installed. (A) deliver (B) delivered (C) delivering (D) delivers — (B). Reduced passive relative clause. Why: This is “equipment that was delivered last week”. (A) and (D) are finite verbs that cannot follow the noun here, and (C) has an active meaning.

14. ______ the delay, the shipment reached the client on time. (A) Although (B) Despite (C) Because (D) However — (B). “Despite” takes a noun phrase; “although” needs a clause. Why: (A) and (C) are conjunctions and need a clause; (D) is an adverb.

15. The manual explains ______ to reset the device. (A) how (B) what (C) which (D) that — (A). Why: “How to reset” explains the method. The other words do not fit “explains ___ to reset”.

16. Employees ______ complete the training will receive a certificate. (A) who (B) which (C) whose (D) whom — (A). Why: “Who” is the relative pronoun for people as the subject of “complete”. (B) is for things, (C) needs a noun after it and (D) is an object form.

17. The proposal must be approved ______ the board meets, so that every member can read the final version in advance. (A) during (B) while (C) before (D) since — (C). Why: “Before the board meets” puts the approval first. (A) “during” needs a noun, (D) “since” needs a past point, and (B) “while” would mean “at the same time as”, which contradicts “in advance”.

18. Had we known about the change, we ______ the order. (A) will cancel (B) would have cancelled (C) cancel (D) had cancelled — (B). Inverted third conditional. Why: “Had we known” means “If we had known”, so the result clause takes “would have” plus a past participle.

19. Each of the departments ______ its own budget. (A) submit (B) submits (C) are submitting (D) have submitted — (B). “Each of” takes a singular verb. Why: With “Each of + plural noun”, the verb agrees with “Each”, which is singular. Do not be misled by “departments”.

20. The contract will be renewed ______ both parties agree. (A) unless (B) provided that (C) in case (D) whereas — (B). Why: “Provided that” means “on the condition that”. (A) “unless” reverses the meaning, (C) “in case” means “as a precaution” and (D) “whereas” contrasts two facts.

Category C — Vocabulary and collocation (10 items)

21. Please ______ the attached invoice for your records. (A) retain (B) retire (C) refrain (D) reveal — (A). Why: “Retain” means keep. (B) retire, (C) refrain and (D) reveal do not mean keep.

22. The airline will ______ passengers for the delay. (A) compensate (B) complement (C) compliment (D) comprise — (A). Why: “Compensate” means pay back for a loss or inconvenience. (B) complement means go well with, (C) compliment means praise and (D) comprise means consist of.

23. Sales figures ______ expectations this quarter. (A) exceeded (B) excelled (C) extended (D) excluded — (A). Why: “Exceed expectations” means go beyond them. (B) “excelled” is intransitive (excel at), and (C) and (D) do not fit the meaning.

24. We must ______ to the safety regulations at all times. (A) adhere (B) admit (C) advance (D) advise — (A). “Adhere to” is the fixed collocation. Why: (B) admit, (C) advance and (D) advise do not combine with “to the safety regulations”.

25. The vendor agreed to ______ the shipping cost. (A) waive (B) wave (C) weigh (D) warn — (A). Why: “Waive a cost” means choose not to charge it. (B) wave means move a hand, (C) weigh and (D) warn do not fit.

26. Attendance has declined ______ since the venue changed. (A) steadily (B) steadfast (C) steady (D) stealth — (A). Why: “Declined ___” needs an adverb. (B) and (C) are adjectives and (D) is a noun.

27. The new policy takes ______ on the first of April. (A) effect (B) affect (C) effective (D) efficient — (A). “Take effect” is fixed. Why: (B) “affect” is mainly a verb, and (C) and (D) are adjectives; “takes effect” needs the noun.

28. All expenses must be ______ with a receipt. (A) accompanied (B) associated (C) attributed (D) accounted — (A). Why: “Accompanied with a receipt” means a receipt is attached or provided (“accompanied by” is the more common preposition). (B), (C) and (D) do not take a receipt as a companion.

29. The firm has a strong ______ for on-time delivery. (A) reputation (B) recognition (C) reference (D) reception — (A). Why: “A strong reputation for” is the usual pattern for a company’s standing. (B) “recognition” usually means being acknowledged, for example with an award.

30. Please ______ from using mobile phones in the studio. (A) refrain (B) restrain (C) retain (D) remain — (A). Why: “Refrain from + -ing” means hold back from doing something. (B) “restrain” needs an object, and (C) “retain” and (D) “remain” are not followed by “from” in this meaning.

Check your results

Count your mistakes in each category. Most mistakes in A usually mean you are not checking the position of the blank. Most mistakes in B usually mean you are not finding the subject, verb or time marker first. Most mistakes in C usually mean you learned words alone, without the words they go with. This is LUME’s own study advice, not an ETS rule. Redo the items you missed after a day or two without looking at the answers.

The 20-second decision tree

  1. Look at the four options before the sentence. Same root word means word form. Different tenses means grammar. Four unrelated words means vocabulary.
  2. Word form: read only the words either side of the blank. You rarely need the whole sentence.
  3. Grammar: find the subject and any time marker (“by the time”, “since”, “last week”).
  4. Vocabulary: read the whole sentence once. Collocation, not definition, decides it.

FAQ

How many questions are in TOEIC Part 5?

30, at the start of the Reading section. Parts 5, 6 and 7 share one 75-minute block of 100 questions.

How long should I spend on each Part 5 question?

About 20–25 seconds. Spending a minute per item leaves too little time for Part 7, which has 54 questions.

Is there negative marking in Part 5?

No. The ETS handbook says your score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly and that there is no penalty for guessing, so never leave a blank.

What is tested most often in Part 5?

Word form, verb grammar, and word choice. Looking at the four options first tells you which of the three you are dealing with before you read the sentence.

Related practice resources

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